When I speak with Buyers about GST I ask them their intent of the use of the property. So, what happens if the intent of use changes over the course of ownership? For example, the intent was to rent out the phase 1 property and generate as much revenue as possible, now the owners want to keep it for personal use. This enacts a change of use, and now GST may be due on the property.
The opposite version is, the intent was to keep the property as residential and now the owners want to rent it out nightly. Once you get to $30,000 gross business revenue you must apply for a GST number. However, renting out your Kadenwood house at $5,000 a night for 7 nights that’s $35,000, is that a change of use? It can be a problem to change the intent of use even for a year.